Yes, she did give me a statement which apparently she produced the day I fired her. Walked into her office and fired her on the spot. Claims she didn't have it ready nor normally has it done in less than a day but I refused to leave without my file an itemized statement. The itemized billing shows work done which seems to correspond with some of the records she provided with the file.
How the heck can somebody simply do work without getting approval from a client first when it goes over the retainage? I don't think it would be much of an issue if it was a couple of hundred dollars but we are talking the low thousands. So for example if I take my truck to a repair shop to do work and it appears to be going over the stated amount, most places I've been at have you sign a statement that they won't do any work over the quoted amount unless authorized by you. I'll have to see if my parents kept a copy of the contract but it would seem to me that the attorney won't have a leg to stand on. Unless the contact stated otherwise, and even then I don't see how it could be valid, I don't see how it would benefit a client to basically sign their rights away without knowing they are going over the retained amount. Maybe I'm all washed up on this,
