Postby embattled » Tue May 08, 2012 10:14 am
The woman who's on the pill gets pregnant, the man does not want to keep the child, but she does. Agencies can still force him to pay, right?
So, he has no say about the child he fathered, but he has all the responsibilities of being a father against his will.
Is that the case? (Not that this is an issue for me, but I wonder...)