BubbaGumpShrimp wrote: My $.02...you only bought it four months before the marriage...but it's still a pre-marital asset. Unless she gave you money for the express purpose of making a down-payment, I don't see how she can claim that it's her house (legally).
Unless the OP paid cash out of his savings account for that house up front, i.e., he owned it free and clear without having to take out a mortgage, then it will almost certainly be considered a marital asset. As soon as he made the first mortgage payment after they were married, the house became a "co-mingled" asset, and subject to (so-called

) equitable division.
I was in a similar situation here in Illinois. Even the money that I personally put into the place before getting married was subject to division, because it was "the marital home". The OP should search caselaw in his state using that phrase. It's a legal line of reasoning that basically said even though I bought it with my money, everybody involved knew the home was intended for both of us, so she should get half regardless.
In the OP's case, a possible strategy is to keep the house and ask her to pay half the debt, but be willing to negotiate to take on all the mortgage debt if you get to stay in the house. Because staying in the house could be a huge help to your custody case as well.